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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:
Topic
Details
Topic 1
- Security Architecture: This domain focuses on analyzing requirements to design resilient systems, including the configuration of firewalls and intrusion detection systems.
Topic 2
- Governance, Risk, and Compliance: This section of the exam measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that cover the implementation of governance components based on organizational security requirements, including developing policies, procedures, and standards. Candidates will learn about managing security programs, including awareness training on phishing and social engineering.
Topic 3
- Security Operations: This domain is designed for CompTIA security architects and covers analyzing data to support monitoring and response activities, as well as assessing vulnerabilities and recommending solutions to reduce attack surfaces. Candidates will apply threat-hunting techniques and utilize threat intelligence concepts to enhance operational security.
Topic 4
- Security Engineering: This section measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that involve troubleshooting common issues related to identity and access management (IAM) components within an enterprise environment. Candidates will analyze requirements to enhance endpoint and server security while implementing hardware security technologies. This domain also emphasizes the importance of advanced cryptographic concepts in securing systems.
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CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q179-Q184):
NEW QUESTION # 179
Which of the following best describes a common use case for homomorphic encryption?
- A. Storing proprietary data across multiple nodes in a private cloud to prevent access by unauthenticated users
- B. Transmitting confidential data to a CSP for processing on a large number of resources without revealing information
- C. Maintaining the confidentiality of data both at rest and in transit to and from a CSP for processing
- D. Processing data on a server after decrypting in order to prevent unauthorized access in transit
Answer: B
Explanation:
Homomorphic encryptionallows computations to be performed directly on encrypted data without decrypting it first. This technology is particularly useful for securely transmitting confidential data to a cloud service provider (CSP) and allowing the CSP to process the data without having any visibility into its content. This maintains data confidentiality even during processing. It is not about securing data at rest and in transit or simply storing data across nodes.
NEW QUESTION # 180
A security architect for a global organization with a distributed workforce recently received funding lo deploy a CASB solution Which of the following most likely explains the choice to use a proxy-based CASB?
- A. Corporate devices cannot receive certificates when not connected to on-premises devices
- B. Protecting and regularly rotating API secret keys requires a significant time commitment
- C. Privacy compliance obligations are bypassed when using a user-based deployment.
- D. The capability to block unapproved applications and services is possible
Answer: D
Explanation:
A proxy-based Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is chosen primarily for its ability to block unapproved applications and services. Here's why:
* Application and Service Control: Proxy-based CASBs can monitor and control the use of applications and services by inspecting traffic as it passes through the proxy. This allows the organization to enforce policies that block unapproved applications and services, ensuring compliance with security policies.
* Visibility and Monitoring: By routing traffic through the proxy, the CASB can provide detailed visibility into user activities and data flows, enabling better monitoring and threat detection.
* Real-Time Protection: Proxy-based CASBs can provide real-time protection against threats by analyzing and controlling traffic before it reaches the end user, thus preventing the use of risky applications and services.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-125: Guide to Security for Full Virtualization Technologies
* Gartner CASB Market Guide
NEW QUESTION # 181
A security engineer is implementing a code signing requirement for all code developed by the organization.
Currently, the PKI only generates website certificates. Which of the following steps should the engineer perform first?
- A. Implement a SAN for all internal web applications.
- B. Recalculate a public/private key pair for the root CA.
- C. Add a new template on the internal CA with the correct attributes.
- D. Generate a wildcard certificate for the internal domain.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To enable code signing with an existing PKI, the first step is to configure the Certificate Authority (CA) to issue code signing certificates. Adding a new template with attributes specific to code signing (e.g., key usage for signing) allows the CA to support this requirement without disrupting existing operations.
* Option A:Correct-templates define certificate types; this is the foundational step.
* Option B:Wildcard certificates are for domains, not code signing.
* Option C:Recalculating root CA keys is unnecessary and risky unless compromised.
* Option D:SAN (Subject Alternative Name) is for multi-domain certificates, irrelevant here.
NEW QUESTION # 182
SIMULATION
[Security Architecture]
You are tasked with integrating a new B2B client application with an existing OAuth workflow that must meet the following requirements:
. The application does not need to know the users' credentials.
. An approval interaction between the users and theHTTP service must be orchestrated.
. The application must have limited access to users' data.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-down menus to select the action items for the appropriate locations. All placeholders must be filled.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below in Explanation
Explanation:
Select the Action Items for the Appropriate Locations:
Authorization Server:
Action Item: Grant access
The authorization server's role is to authenticate the user and then issue an authorization code or token that the client application can use to access resources. Granting access involves the server authenticating the resource owner and providing the necessary tokens for the client application.
Resource Server:
Action Item: Access issued tokens
The resource server is responsible for serving the resources requested by the client application. It must verify the issued tokens from the authorization server to ensure the client has the right permissions to access the requested data.
B2B Client Application:
Action Item: Authorize access to other applications
The B2B client application must handle the OAuth flow to authorize access on behalf of the user without requiring direct knowledge of the user's credentials. This includes obtaining authorization tokens from the authorization server and using them to request access to the resource server.
Detailed
OAuth 2.0 is designed to provide specific authorization flows for web applications, desktopapplications, mobile phones, and living room devices. The integration involves multiple steps and components, including:
Resource Owner (User):
The user owns the data and resources that are being accessed.
Client Application (B2B Client Application):
Requests access to the resources controlled by the resource owner but does not directly handle the user's credentials. Instead, it uses tokens obtained through the OAuth flow.
Authorization Server:
Handles the authentication of the resource owner and issues the access tokens to the client application upon successful authentication.
Resource Server:
Hosts the resources that the client application wants to access. It verifies the access tokens issued by the authorization server before granting access to the resources.
OAuth Workflow:
The resource owner accesses the client application.
The client application redirects the resource owner to the authorization server for authentication.
The authorization server authenticates the resource owner and asks for consent to grant access to the client application.
Upon consent, the authorization server issues an authorization code or token to the client application.
The client application uses the authorization code or token to request access to the resources from the resource server.
The resource server verifies the token with the authorization server and, if valid, grants access to the requested resources.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Provides comprehensive information on various authentication and authorization protocols, including OAuth.
OAuth 2.0 Authorization Framework (RFC 6749): The official documentation detailing the OAuth 2.0 framework, its flows, and components.
OAuth 2.0 Simplified: A book by Aaron Parecki that provides a detailed yet easy-to-understand explanation of the OAuth 2.0 protocol.
By ensuring that each component in the OAuth workflow performs its designated role, the B2B client application can securely access the necessary resources without compromising user credentials, adhering to the principle of least privilege.
NEW QUESTION # 183
During a security assessment using an CDR solution, a security engineer generates the following report about the assets in me system:
After five days, the EDR console reports an infection on the host 0WIN23 by a remote access Trojan Which of the following is the most probable cause of the infection?
- A. The EDR has an unknown vulnerability that was exploited by the attacker.
- B. 0W1N29 spreads the malware through other hosts in the network
- C. LN002 was not supported by the EDR solution and propagates the RAT
- D. OW1N23 uses a legacy version of Windows that is not supported by the EDR
Answer: D
Explanation:
OWIN23 is running Windows 7, which is a legacy operating system. Many EDR solutions no longer provide full support for outdated operating systems like Windows 7, which has reached its end of life and is no longer receiving security updates from Microsoft. This makes such systems more vulnerable to infections and attacks, including remote access Trojans (RATs).
* A. OWIN23 uses a legacy version of Windows that is not supported by the EDR: This is the most probable cause because the lack of support means that the EDR solution may not fully protect or monitor this system, making it an easy target for infections.
* B. LN002 was not supported by the EDR solution and propagates the RAT: While LN002 is unmanaged, it is less likely to propagate the RAT to OWIN23 directly without an established vector.
* C. The EDR has an unknown vulnerability that was exploited by the attacker: This is possible but less likely than the lack of support for an outdated OS.
* D. OWIN29 spreads the malware through other hosts in the network: While this could happen, the status indicates OWIN29 is in a bypass mode, which might limit its interactions but does not directly explain the infection on OWIN23.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations"
* Microsoft's Windows 7 End of Support documentation
NEW QUESTION # 184
......
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